"Troubled" in Greek John 12:27

QUestion

In John 12:27, "troubled" is tetaraktai in Greek. I'm trying to figure out the beginning te- in the Greek word. Can you help me?

Response

John 12:27

Νῦν ἡ ψυχή μου τετάρακται, καὶ τί εἴπω; πάτερ, σῶσόν με ἐκ τῆς ὥρας ταύτης; ἀλλὰ διὰ τοῦτο ἦλθον εἰς τὴν ὥραν ταύτην.

Normally when you see the epsilon reduplication (like τετ or βεβ), the first guess is perfect. The Greek New Testament (GNT) has hundreds of these; so it is a good pattern to learn. This is confirmed by the third person perfect passive ending ται. Τετάρακται is perfect (5th principal part) from ταρἀσσω to disturb, meaning it has been disturbed, where the double σσ in the first principal part represents a guttural root like χ. (The noun is τάραχος)..

Why does it mean “is troubled” as though it were present ταράσσεται? Perfect refers to an event (a disturbance) that first occurred in the past but whose effect continues in the present; so although it refers to something started in the past, its main time is present. So translators often simplify it that way. Τετάρακται is more precise than ταράσσεται because it communicates to the GNT reader that the trouble has been going on for some time. Exact details like that are hard to capture in translation.

Resources for Pronunciation of Koine Greek

Question

Where can I find resources for Modern Greek pronunciation of Koine Greek?

Response

Stephen Pribble has put together a helpful resource at:

https://all-of-grace.org/pub/pribble/moderngreek/index.html

For the same audio on YouTube with scrolling text, see the link below. Choose a book, listen and follow onscreen. It’s highly recommended.

https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLk3PwQOcbBq2U2r7xsulg8e2Lvs0_QFU5

Use of μή in Acts 7:42

Question

Encountered this morning in today’s reading, Acts 7:42:

μὴ σφάγια καὶ θυσίας προσηνέγκατέ μοι

ἔτη τεσσεράκοντα ἐν τῇ ἐρήμῳ, οἶκος Ἰσραήλ;

(citing Amos 5:25)

Μή does not seem to negate προσηνέγκατε, which is indicative. What is its function here?

Response

The negative mood rule that you know about the indicative applies to a little less than 90% of negatives but there are many exceptions. The Interrogative negative expecting a negative response is one of those exceptions. You see the initial position of the negative and the separation from the verb.

Koine Greek Questions as Independent Clauses

Question

Hi Dennis,

Is a question ever an independent clause in Koine Greek?

Response

Clauses are headed by finite verbs. Relative clauses and clauses with subordinators like ὁτι are not usually interrogative. Interrogative clauses have a question mark (:) at the end and may be dependent or independent. They often start with interrogative words such as “why” or “where.” There are also interrogative relative clauses such as “he asked what he could do”, but these are dependent and lack the question mark. About 6% of GNT main clauses are interrogative. About a third of those are dependent clauses governed by a discourse control verb in the independent clause, and about two thirds are independent.

All of the independent interrogative clauses are in letters (epistles) or in extended discourse that have a discourse control word (usually a verb) in a previous independent clause. For example, in the Sermon on the Mount Matthew 5:13, Jesus says

“If the salt loses its flavor, with what will it be salted?”

The discourse control verb is λέγων back in Matthew 5:2. In addition to interrogative clauses, elliptical interrogative fragments occur, and these are usually independent. For example in Matthew 11:7, Jesus asks

“What did you go out into the wilderness to see? A reed shaken by the wind?"

What is the antecedent for τούτου in Genesis 2:24 LXX (Septuagint)?

QUESTION

Genesis 2:24

" 24 ἕνεκεν τούτου καταλείψει ἄνθρωπος τὸν πατέρα αὐτοῦ καὶ τὴν μητέρα αὐτοῦ καὶ προσκολληθήσεται πρὸς τὴν γυναῖκα αὐτοῦ, καὶ ἔσονται οἱ δύο εἰς σάρκα μίαν."

τούτου Is neuter here, apparently, but what is it referring to? Is it part of an idiom “therefore” ἕνεκεν τούτου and so an antecedent isn’t needed? Bone is neuter in verse 23, but that doesn’t seem sufficient to the meaning.

RESPONSE

As you know, all pronouns and verbs (and a few other kinds of words) in Greek have antecedents. The antecedent of τούτου is the previous sentence, as is common in the Greek New Testament (GNT). Probably you didn’t think of a whole sentence, or discourse even, as a candidate, but the Greek speakers certainly did.

Greek Accents in Hebrews 1:1

QUESTION

Hi Dennis,

Hebrews. 1:1, Πολυμερῶς καὶ πολυτρόπως

Hebrews 1:1 (NA27) Πολυμερῶς καὶ πολυτρόπως πάλαι ὁ θεὸς λαλήσας τοῖς πατράσιν ἐν τοῖς προφήταις

Why are these two Greek adverbs accented differently? How can one remember—aside from rote memory—which is ultimate and which is penultimate?

RESPONSE

Your hope is forlorn. Unlike Latin, Greek has variable lemma accents. Non-verb lemma accent types (5) must largely be memorized with the vocabulary. Verb accents do not need to be memorized individually but follow rules. Unparsed lemmas have no variants to speak of but are statistically small. Your adverb examples fall in the adjective category.

The majority of nouns, pronouns, and adjectives are retentive and follow derivation rules, but the lemmas mostly need to be memorized although there are a few tricks for maybe 5% of them. There are about 4000 of these declensional lemmas as opposed to 25,000 standard inflections and 2,500 more nonstandard variant inflections. Since 2 thirds of these are recessive, you really only need to learn about 2,700. Daunting but gotta bite the bullet. No shortcut. Learning the accent rules only helps with the 23,000 regularly derived inflections, not the original 4000 declensional lemmas.

However, the above discussion only pertains to the 5 non-contextual accent types. The contextual accents involve proclitic, grave, and enclitic and affect about 40% of word occurrences, and there is a second set of complex contextual accent rules for these.

Many people like Mounce simply find both the 4000 declensional lemma accents and the two kinds of rules more trouble than they are worth and simply give up on learning GNT accents. It is a rational choice. We all save time somewhere unless we are learning a spoken language. Accents can be read properly without memorizing anything. However, the contextual accents form accent chains of 2 to 12 words which are interesting units in themselves if you want to see them as a kind of epiphenomenon on the text overlaying the punctuation chains and the syntax units. These chains can be identified with a few rules.

κρίναντες ἐπλήρωσαν in Acts 13:27

QUESTION

To me, both of these verbs κρίναντες ἐπλήρωσαν seem to be missing objects and the antecedents aren’t clear. Are there any tips and tricks in the grammar for translation or is it just a matter of getting the semantics right?

Acts 13:27 (NA27) οἱ γὰρ κατοικοῦντες ἐν Ἰερουσαλὴμ καὶ οἱ ἄρχοντες αὐτῶν τοῦτον ἀγνοήσαντες καὶ τὰς φωνὰς τῶν προφητῶν τὰς κατὰ πᾶν σάββατον ἀναγινωσκομένας κρίναντες ἐπλήρωσαν,

DENNIS’ RESPONSE

οἱ γὰρ κατοικοῦντες ἐν Ἱερουσαλὴμ

καὶ οἱ ἄρχοντες αὐτῶν

τοῦτον ἀγνοήσαντες

καὶ τὰς φωνὰς τῶν προφητῶν τὰς κατὰ πᾶν σάββατον ἀναγινωσκομένας

κρίναντες (τοῦτον)

ἐπλήρωσαν (τὰς φωνὰς τῶν προφητῶν)

Those who live at Jerusalem

and their rulers

since they did not recognize him

even though they read the words of the prophets every sabbath

condemned him anyway

and thereby fulfilled those words.

So there are five transitive nominative plural participial phrases before the finite verb of the independent clause in verse 27 in a simple, orderly syntax. The first two are the articular subject, and the others are anarthrous circumstantial participles to the plural verb. The objects of the first 3 verbs are supplied explicitly, but the expected objects of the last two transitive verbs are, as you observed, elliptical.

The ellipsis of subjects and objects is a salient feature of Greek not encountered in English which requires them to be explicit. What needs to be supplied for transitive verbs is the object (not the antecedents). The normal rule is to assume, the implicit objects to be those previously supplied to the immediately preceding verbs, but semantically in keeping with common sense. 

The antecedent of the pronoun τοῦτον is Christ, from the context. Christ was the one the Jews misunderstood and condemned (although they also did so to the prophets before him). So since Christ (τοῦτον) is the focus, he is the most natural to take as the implicit object of κρίναντες. However, the scriptural pattern for fulfilling is the scripture itself. So that is the most natural object to take for fulfilling.  

Greek had a minimalist habit of reusing words from the earlier context without repeating them. In this way, the natural interpretation for implicit objects of transitive verbs involves a combination of the practice of carrying the previous objects forward (like an echo or a copy) and the application of the expected language patterns and what works semantically in the context. This is not eisegesis.

Within this general framework, if you read the translations on Bible Hub, you will see a variety of minor variations that fit well semantically.

What to do with τε in Acts 12:17?

QUESTION

I’m wondering how to translate τε in this verse in Acts 12:17 in the Greek New Testament (GNT) NA27. I’m not used to seeing τε at the apparent end of the sentence, followed by a semicolon.

Acts 12:17 (NA27) κατασείσας δὲ αὐτοῖς τῇ χειρὶ σιγᾶν διηγήσατο [αὐτοῖς] πῶς ὁ κύριος αὐτὸν ἐξήγαγεν ἐκ τῆς φυλακῆς εἶπέν τε· ἀπαγγείλατε Ἰακώβῳ καὶ τοῖς ἀδελφοῖς ταῦτα. καὶ ἐξελθὼν ἐπορεύθη εἰς ἕτερον τόπον.

DENNIS’ RESPONSE

Here is a UBS and NA punctuation lesson for the Greek New Testament (GNT).

Obviously τε is not the last word in the independent clause because the following quote is the discourse object. Your confusion is actually over the ambiguous meaning of the Nestle Aland colon rather than the Greek grammar. The UBS punctuation for the same text is

Acts 12:17 (UBS) κατασείσας δὲ αὐτοῖς τῇ χειρὶ σιγᾷν διηγήσατο αὐτοῖς πῶς ὁ κύριος αὐτὸν ἐξήγαγεν ἐκ τῆς φυλακῆς, εἶπέν τε Ἀπαγγείλατε Ἰακώβῳ καὶ τοῖς ἀδελφοῖς ταῦτα. καὶ ἐξελθὼν ἐπορεύθη εἰς ἕτερον τόπον.

Notice that the UBS capitalizes the direct quote but the NA does not.

The NA colon is the punctuation for the START of the direct quote, among other things, since these Greek texts lack the quote marks of modern English. Sometimes the NA colon also signals the division between two independent clauses. (See Acts 12:5), which is what you thought it meant here.

When the postpositive coordinating conjunction τε and is the second word in the independent clause right before the direct quote, then a colon follows, as in Acts 19:3.

Acts 19:3 (NA27) εἶπέν τε· εἰς τί οὖν ἐβαπτίσθητε; οἱ δὲ εἶπαν· εἰς τὸ Ἰωάννου βάπτισμα.

A second source of your confusion, since you are unfamiliar with the NA and UBS punctuation rules, is that, although both the colon and comma may separate independent clauses or main clauses, often no punctuation is used there at all when a new clause occurs, unlike the English rules. As you see, the UBS uses a comma between the independent clauses, but the NA lacks any punctuation there in this sentence, although it uses the colon in Acts 12:5 for that purpose.

Isn’t ambiguity fun?

A 3-verse visit to Dalmanutha in Mark 8

QUESTION

Hi Dennis, What’s the rule for this “if” clause in Mark 8:12? I’m not sure how to translate it.

" καὶ ἀναστενάξας τῷ πνεύματι αὐτοῦ λέγει· τί ἡ γενεὰ αὕτη ζητεῖ σημεῖον; ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν, εἰ δοθήσεται τῇ γενεᾷ ταύτῃ σημεῖον."

RESPONSE

This is an elliptical negation. See the non-elliptical Matthew 16:4 parallel. This is the if protasis=condition with an unspoken elliptical “then hell will freeze over” impossible apodosis=consequence=conclusion in an elliptical reductio ad absurdum construction. 

Matthew 16:4 (SBL GNT)

Γενεὰ πονηρὰ καὶ μοιχαλὶς σημεῖον ἐπιζητεῖ, καὶ σημεῖον οὐ δοθήσεται αὐτῇ εἰ μὴ τὸ σημεῖον Ἰωνᾶ. καὶ καταλιπὼν αὐτοὺς ἀπῆλθεν.


So the elliptical construction equates logically to an οὐ μή “certainly not” or “No way” denial of the expressed if condition based on the well-known reductio ad absurdum principle that if the conclusion is false and the conditional assertion is true then that proves that the premises=condition=protasis must be false. By Jesus’ day, the Jews had already been exposed to 300 years of Greek logic from their rulers and they already had the aposiopesis im construction from Hebrew (see Robertson’s Word Pictures).

As anticipated by his groan reaction to their deceitfulness, Jesus is giving a sharp answer back to a trap question. “You figure out the obvious conclusion for your selves.” Normally the questioner dominates the dialogue, but Jesus turns the tables. The hypocrites already have plenty of reliable reports of miracles and have proven that they, like Dives’ brothers, would not be converted even if they saw one themselves.

The false elliptical reductio ad absurdum construction is illustrated in Hebrews 3:11 and 4:3, 6:14. The advantage of our project Greek New Testament – Grammatical Commentary (GNT-GC) is that it gives a tour through the GNT of instances of constructions so the student can grasp the gist of them through example.

However, another advantage of GNT-GC is that it outlines the constructions in a way that places them in their larger setting so the learner can get a perspective. With the two attributes (specific grammatical relation and semantic function) there are 18 different constructions in GNT-GC for εἰ. The elliptical negative reductio ad absurdum construction is expanded within the larger elliptical εἰ setting of the interrogative εἰ construction which occurs in Matthew 12:10, 19:3, Mark 2:16, Acts 1:6, 19:2, 21:37 and Romans 2:17. Under this broader interpretation, Jesus is asking, “Do you really think you are going to manipulate me that way into performing a magic trick for your entertainment?”

In Matthew 9:27, how can the subject of the dependent clause (“τῷ Ἰησοῦ”) be dative?

QUESTION

In Matthew 9:27, how can the subject of the dependent clause (“Jesus”) be dative?

Καὶ παράγοντι ἐκεῖθεν τῷ Ἰησοῦ ἠκολούθησαν δύο τυφλοὶ κράζοντες καὶ λέγοντες ’Ελέησον ἡμᾶς, υἱὸς Δαυείδ. (Nestle 4th ed., 1937)

Καὶ παράγοντι ἐκεῖθεν τῷ Ἰησοῦ ἠκολούθησαν [αὐτῷ] δύο τυφλοὶ κράζοντες καὶ λέγοντες· ἐλέησον ἡμᾶς, υἱὸς Δαυίδ. (NA28)

DENNIS’ RESPONSE

παράγοντι is an oblique circumstantial participle taking its case from a dative object τῷ Ἰησοῦ, which takes its case from the dative-governing verb ἠκολούθησαν. That is the chain of syntactical case causality, even though it flows opposite the word order direction (the speaker was able to think ahead). Circumstantial participles have implicit subjects but lack syntactical grammatical subjects except for the genitive absolute. This is a useful general grammar rule in our project Greek New Testament – Grammatical Commentary (GNT-GC).

Dative τῷ Ἰησοῦ is also the implicit subject and reference source of παράγοντι. It is in the swing position between the two verbs. In this construction, it looks like τῷ Ἰησοῦ is the explicit subject of παράγοντι because they are concordant. It looks like τῷ Ἰησοῦ might be dative because παράγοντι is dative. And semantically it works for translators to think of it that way because the goal of the average GNT reader is to get the meaning over into English where thought begins. However, diagramming Greek as if it corresponded to the English translation patterns does not work; it is impossible. παράγοντι is not the verb head of the subject τῷ Ἰησοῦ and τῷ Ἰησοῦ is not the grammatical subject of παράγοντι.

Based on analogy, you previously ventured the opinion that this sort of construction was a dative absolute. The defect in that opinion is that “absolute” actually has a precise prior meaning. It means not case-determined by another word. παράγοντι is an oblique circumstantial participle because its case is determined by τῷ Ἰησοῦ instead of being absolute.

Matthew could have written the Greek sentence the way you think of it based on the English translation if he had wanted to. It would be Καὶ παράγοντος ἐκεῖθεν τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἠκολούθησαν δύο τυφλοὶ. Matthew had the option to choose whether he wanted to make Jesus the subject of the participle or the main verb even though it is implicitly both. In Greek he must make a choice because of the case system in a way that uninflected English does not. He didn’t choose the way you think in English because oblique circumstantial is not an English construction. It is more idiomatic Greek than the genitive absolute. Nominative absolute is theoretically banned by the Chicago school, but everyone understands it anyway because it has been valid English for a thousand years, and they get its equivalence to Greek genitive absolute.

What the Matthew text actually says is “As he was going from there, two blind men followed Jesus,” not “As Jesus was going from there, two blind men follow him” although they are semantically equivalent. The goal of translators is not to preserve Greek syntax but to render idiomatic English; so they prefer the second sequence as better English, but we cannot read the English syntax back as a guide to the Greek syntax when we are labeling Greek grammatical relations. Theoretically, there is no such thing as a dative subject. That idea is probably a product of imposing English translation syntax on Greek.

However, human language is complex and issued by imperfect humans and may sometimes cross borders in exceptional fringe constructions and fuzz categories and rules even in the GNT. Consider Matthew 8:23,

Καὶ ἐμβάντι αὐτῷ εἰς τὸ πλοῖον ἠκολούθησαν αὐτῷ οἱ μαθηταὶ αὐτοῦ.

Here we have two different instances of αὐτῷ, one as the dative object and the first one as apparently the subject of ἐμβάντι. Since there is no other function for this first αὐτῷ, it may exceptionally be called a dative subject of the oblique participle. It is still not a dative absolute since its case is determined by the verb. Alternatively, one of the datives may be coded as a literary redundant repetition or resumption.

The model here is to make falsifiable definitions for grammatical relations and then test them (so that we start with clear concepts). If they are never violated over a large population, they are absolute rules. If there are a few exceptions, they are general rules (useful mnemonically) and we will provide lists, statistics and user interface access to the exceptions in the forthcoming GNT-GC app.

To illustrate how this works, I have coded 10 other participial subjects (out of over 4000 subjects) besides this one, often ἔκαστος, personalizing the plural to the individual. Probably the most dramatic one is Romans 1:27

ἄρσενες ἐν ἄρσεσιν τὴν ἀσχημοσύνην κατεργαζόμενοι

“men doing something shameful in men,”

although this one also might be coded as merely a literary redundant repetition of the main subject.